A Natural Right to Do Wrong

Jonathan Rowe on Feb 18th 2007

That, I would suggest is part of Founding natural law-natural rights theory as put forth by Jefferson and Madison and encapsulated in the Declaration of Independence: We have a natural right — under our unalienable rights to liberty, pursuit of happiness and the property that each man has in himself — to do what is arguably immoral conduct.

Ed Feser addresses some of these issues in his new article on TCS. The thesis of the article is that Hayek was more of a traditional conservative than libertarians would desire (but that his ideas will also leave traditional conservatives wanting). I don’t know enough about Hayek to respond. I’m more interested in what Feser has to say on Locke and Aquinas and how that might relate to the natural law/natural rights theory which founds America’s public order.

First Feser on Aquinas’ classical natural law theory:

On the classical sort of natural law theory deriving from thinkers like Thomas Aquinas - the kind often appealed to in support of traditional morality - rights are grounded in moral duties. What I have a right to do is just whatever I am obliged to do under natural law, or to what is a necessary prerequisite of performing my obligations. That is the reason rights exist at all - they are safeguards of our ability to fulfill the natural law and flourish as the kinds of beings we are. Hence there can be no such thing as a right to do wrong; the very idea is incoherent. Yet that is exactly what libertarians claim we have - they say, for example, that a person has, all things being equal, a moral right to inject heroin into his veins even if it would be immoral for him to exercise this right. From a classical natural law point of view, this is just muddleheaded. There may well be reasons for government to tolerate certain immoral activities - classical natural law thinkers do not necessarily endorse paternalism, and in fact are often wary of it - but rights per se can have nothing to do with the matter.

Now, this may be true. But as I will show, Founding natural law/natural rights theory does indeed hold that individuals, in principle, have a natural right to do wrong. Therefore, if this contradicts the classical natural law understanding of “rights” (I put that in quotes because Allan Bloom et al. would point out that there are no “rights” under the classical theory of nature, only duties), this simply informs that the theory of natural rights in the Declaration broke with the traditional classical understanding of nature via Aquinas.

Feser moves on to Locke:

Why then do some libertarians claim that natural law supports their view? Some no doubt assume that since John Locke was both a natural law theorist and an influence on libertarians like Robert Nozick, natural law must support libertarianism. But Locke himself was not a “libertarian” as that term is generally understood, and his version of natural law, while very different from the sort that traces its lineage back to Aquinas, hardly leads in a libertarian direction. For Locke, our rights are grounded in God’s ownership of us. Strictly speaking, to say that each human being has a right to his life, liberty, and property is just shorthand for saying that we have a duty not to kill, enslave, or steal from others because to do so would be to damage what belongs to God. But by the same token, we have no right to do what is harmful to ourselves either, for this too would damage God’s property - hence Locke’s explicit denial that we have any right to commit suicide. No libertarian could plausibly make a Lockean case, then, for drug legalization, physician-assisted suicide, or any other such practice on the grounds that it only harms the one doing it.

Now, here is where Feser doesn’t give us the entire story. And he is, I would argue, wrong to suggest that no plausible Lockean case can be made for libertarianism. Richard Epstein and Randy Barnett come to mind as folks who do exactly this. Feser takes a jab at Barnett when he next writes:

Other libertarians would appeal to a conception of “natural law” that makes no reference either to God (as Locke does) or to an unchanging metaphysical human essence (as followers of Aquinas do). Instead, it holds only that there are certain empirical facts about the human condition that we ought to keep in mind in our moral and political decision making, “natural laws” about human biology, psychology, and social organization analogous to the laws of nature uncovered by physical science. But this rather banal claim really has nothing particularly to do with natural law theory as it has historically been understood; it is certainly not what Aquinas and other medieval thinkers meant by “natural law.”

But Randy Barnett precisely appeals to a branch of Lockean thought in making his claim. Indeed, a very important branch — the Jeffersonian-Madisonian understanding of Locke that is contained within our natural rights Founding documents.

One thing I’ve learned in studying various prominent thinkers is that their ideas aren’t contained in a vacuum and invariably evolve when put into the hands of their followers. Often their ideas “branch off” in different directions, with opposing schools of thought ultimately tracing their lineage back to the same thinker. Endless examples could be offered for this. To give one, in debating whether Calvinism is consistent with the concept of revolt, I’ve learned that while Calvin himself seemed to be quite clear that revolt is never permitted, some later followers of his — “Calvinists” — were more generous in recognizing a right to revolt against tyranny. Others believed, after Calvin himself, that the Bible, in no uncertain terms, forbade revolt against civil government.

On religious liberty itself, Locke wouldn’t extend it to, among others, atheists and Catholics. In Jefferson’s notes on Locke, he wrote: “Locke denies toleration to those who entertain op[inio]ns contrary to those moral rules necessary for the preservation of society.” Then Jefferson noted, “But where he stopped short, we may go on.” Jefferson’s and Madison’s “Lockeanism” lead them to hold that the unalienable rights of conscience apply equally to all, to “the Jew and the Gentile, the Christian and Mahometan, the Hindoo, and Infidel of every denomination.”

In his book “Notes on the State of Virginia,” Jefferson put it as follows:

“[O]ur rulers can have no authority over such natural rights, only as we have submitted to them. The rights of conscience we never submitted, we could not submit. We are answerable for them to our God. The legitimate powers of government extend to such acts only as are injurious to others. But it does me no injury for my neighbor to say there are twenty gods or no god. It neither picks my pocket nor breaks my leg.”

Now, by holding that men have the natural right to openly worship false gods or profess atheism, Jefferson necessarily held that men have a natural right to do what may be wrong, because the Bible holds these things to be wrong. In fact, they violate the very First Commandment of the Bible, and elsewhere in the Old Testament, public proselytizing for false gods, like sodomy, merits execution. Indeed, for a thousand and some hundred years, before Church and State were separated in the West, in various “Christian Nations” one could be executed for heresy, blasphemy, worshipping false gods, or for generally violating one’s duties to God. Now, thanks to Jefferson and Madison, most of these things are protected under the First Amendment’s right to Free Exercise of Religion.

To put this into perspective, many of America’s Colonies, founded under an earlier order, had laws on the books which demanded execution for violating the “First Tablet” of the Ten Commandments. For instance, the Massachusetts Body of Liberties held:

1.
(Deut. 13. 6, 10. Deut. 17. 2, 6. Ex. 22.20)
If any man after legall conviction shall have or worship any other god, but the lord god, he shall be put to death.

Nearly all of the colonies save Rhode Island, when founded, had similar laws. Jefferson and Madison flipped this notion on its head by arguing that men have an unalienable God given right to worship no god or twenty Gods. It shouldn’t surprise then that some argue Jefferson’s and Madison’s rights-granting “Nature’s God,” because He seems not jealous, is not the Biblical God. Likewise, though many orthodox Christians, mainly dissenters, supported Madison’s and Jefferson’s project and found ways to reconcile Lockean-Jeffersonian-Madisonian theory with their understanding of the Bible and the Christian religion, other pious Christians, those more sympathetic to the older order, could not.

In reflecting on the above quoted passage from Notes on the State of Virginia, the Reverend John Mason termed Jefferson’s idea

the morality of devils, which would break in an instant every link in the chain of human friendship, and transform the globe into one scene of desolation and horror, where fiend would prowl with fiend for plunder and blood — yet atheism “neither picks my pocket nor breaks my leg.” I will not abuse you by asking, whether the author of such an opinion can be a Christian?

Clearly then, if one believes that breaking the first tablet of the Decalogue is immoral, then Jefferson and Madison, building upon a Lockean foundation, believed men had a natural right to do wrong.

I also disagree that Locke’s notion of self-ownership does not support libertarianism. In fact, when libertarians argue that they have a right to use illegal drugs or commit suicide they do so precisely because of the Lockean notion that an individual belongs to himself. Feser writes that Locke believed “we have no right to do what is harmful to ourselves either, for this too would damage God’s property.” For one, this ignores the tension, long discussed by serious scholars of Locke — the Straussians — between the notion that an individual belongs to himself and that an individual belongs to God. See my past post where I discuss an article that Harvey Mansfield wrote on the matter. As he put it:

Locke gives two descriptions of the character of men in their fundamental relation to liberty. He says that they are the “workmanship” of God, that men are “his [God's] property” and so belong to God; but he also says that “every man has a property in his own person.”1 These appear to be directly contrary because the “workmanship argument” (as it is called by Locke’s interpreters) would make man a slave of God2 whereas the idea of property in one’s own person sets him free to do with himself what he wishes. Thus Locke says, in accordance with the former, that men have no right to commit suicide (”everyone is bound . . . not to quit his Station wilfully”3). But in accordance with the latter, though saying nothing directly about a right of suicide, he pronounces that in the state of nature, man is “absolute lord of his own person and possessions.”4

…The difference between belonging to God and belonging to yourself is not a small one….

Indeed, in Bowers v. Hardwick, Justice Blackmun’s dissent uses the self-ownership premise to argue for a “right” to commit “sodomy” because he believed, as did Locke, “that a person belongs to himself and not others nor to society as a whole.”

It’s possible that, in committing “sodomy,” men are ultimately doing something wrong because God or nature forbids such activity (personally I don’t believe it). Even so, it does not follow that men have no natural right to “sodomy.” An analogy, again, can be raised to the rights of conscience. Jefferson was well aware that many thought it gravely immoral to profess atheism, deny the Trinity, worship idols or otherwise violate the first table of the Decalogue. His response: “We are answerable for [how we exercise our rights of conscience] to our God” and not our fellow man in the civil compact. Locke likewise held that “The care, therefore, of every man’s soul belongs unto himself,” not government.

I don’t see how — according to Lockean thought — the care for a man’s body necessarily must differ from the care for man’s soul. Both are, according to Locke, God granted unalienable rights for which we are ultimately responsible to God and not fellow man or government. Therefore, if one harms himself physically as he might harm his soul by breaking the first tablet of the Decalogue, man is still responsible to God only and not fellow man or government.

And again, this is how Jefferson seemed to have interpreted Locke. In the above quoted passage from Notes on the rights of conscience Jefferson seemed to blur the soul/body line in terms of what government, by right, may do:

The legitimate powers of government extend to such acts only as are injurious to others. But it does me no injury for my neighbor to say there are twenty gods or no god. It neither picks my pocket nor breaks my leg.

Similarly, if Jefferson’s neighbor does drugs or commits suicide it still neither picks his pocket nor breaks his leg. And while I am not aware of Jefferson ever speaking on drugs (though he was an avowed pleasure-seeking Epicurean), he did apparently oppose criminal sanctions for suicide:

Men are too much attached to this life to exhibit frequent instances of depriving themselves of it. At any rate, the quasi-punishment of confiscation will not prevent it. For if one can be found who can calmly determine to renounce life, who is so weary of his existence here as rather to make experiment of what is beyond the grave, can we suppose him, in such a state of mind, susceptible to influence from the losses to his family by confiscation? That men in general disapprove of this severity is apparent from the constant practice of juries finding the suicide in a state of insanity; because they have no other way of saving the forfeiture.

And while Locke didn’t believe man had a right to committ suicide, he did, right after he asserted “[t]he care…of every man’s soul belongs unto himself,” compare the care for man’s soul to care for his physical property and body and made a very libertarian sounding argument:

But what if he neglect the care of his soul? I answer: What if he neglect the care of his health or of his estate, which things are nearlier related to the government of the magistrate than the other? Will the magistrate provide by an express law that such a one shall not become poor or sick? Laws provide, as much as is possible, that the goods and health of subjects be not injured by the fraud and violence of others; they do not guard them from the negligence or ill-husbandry of the possessors themselves. No man can be forced to be rich or healthful whether he will or no.

So it appears that short of suicide, Locke believed that man did indeed have a right to do injury to himself or his estate. And the notion that “[l]aws provide…that the goods and health of subjects be not injured by the fraud and violence of others; they do not guard them from the negligence or ill-husbandry of the possessors themselves” is remarkably close to what today’s libertarians argue.

Finally, if I may speculate on Feser’s motives in attempting to overstate the difference between Locke’s writings and modern libertarianism, it is because Feser, as a political opponent of libertarianism, wants to weaken its theoretical underpinnings. But Locke’s words speak for themselves and his principle of self ownership persists as viable, useful, and foundational to American Founding thought, in spite of attacks that fall short.

Filed in The Belfry, The Bench, The Bookshelf, The Boudoir, The Bureau

10 Responses to “A Natural Right to Do Wrong”

  1. AMWon 19 Feb 2007 at 8:58 am

    Will the magistrate provide by an express law that such a one shall not become poor or sick?

    Poor John. He’s either spinning in his grave or laughing himself silly . . .

  2. Kenneth R Greggon 19 Feb 2007 at 6:09 pm

    As another American Lockean succinctly put it, “Vices are not Crimes”.

  3. Kenneth R Greggon 19 Feb 2007 at 6:11 pm

    Oops! That is the title of one of Lysander Spooner’s essays. The point that he makes is that just as there are natural rights, there are natural crimes, and that sin, or vices, are not criminal.
    Best to you,
    Just Ken
    kgregglv@cox.net
    http://classicalliberalism.blogspot.com

  4. LDFon 20 Feb 2007 at 2:47 am

    We absolutely have a “natural right” to be amoral. This is one of the big reasons people like Locke believe it is terrible to surrender your individual right to redress a wrong to the collective. If a person is wronged, a natural law activist feels that the victim has the right and even duty to redress that wrong.

    If under natural law, people were not entitled to commit amoral acts, redressing such wrongs would instead logically be the responsibility of the collective as such amoral acts would be a violation of natural law. This is not the case.

    If a person commits an amoral act that fails to harm others, the act is not a violation of natural law and the collective is not given the right to redress the amoral act. If that amoral act harms the person who commits the act, natural law is automatically served as the perpetrator receives whatever harm comes from the act and is thus already punished.

  5. Jon Roweon 20 Feb 2007 at 3:07 pm

    Excellent comments. Thanks!

  6. [...] At least one branch of Greek political thinking held that government’s purpose was to allow men to be virtuous, that is, to encourage and allow for men to pursue the virtues. Jon Rowe at Positive Liberty makes an argument that the Founders held that we have a right to do that which is wrong (or immoral). It’s not clear that lawmakers have followed this reading of the Founders, but it seems to me that a Lawmaker who bases his legislation not on rights but on virtue, might disagree. It seems to me perfectly reasonable for a lawmaker to write laws, respecting the rights as enumerated in the Constitution, yet to hold as illegal immoral activities when the enforcement of those laws does not encroach on our enumerated rights. An example might be if an activity, X-ing is seen as immoral, then it would be reasonable to make it illegal to X in public but less correct to make Xing in private illegal. It also might be appropriate to restrict the manufacture of the equipment used while Xing if such equipment has no other purpose. [...]

  7. Mark Olsonon 21 Feb 2007 at 8:57 am

    Jon,
    Trackback didn’t seem to take, I linked and commented on this here.

  8. Jon Roweon 21 Feb 2007 at 12:57 pm

    I see the trackback is working now.

    Thanks!

  9. [...] I have some thoughts on Rowe’s post about whether we have a natural right to do wrong things. I agree that the answer is yes, of course, but with two differences. [...]

  10. The Gay Specieson 22 Feb 2007 at 7:29 pm

    All morality, unlike ethics, is deontologically rules-based, whether the Decalogue, Kant’s categorical imperative, Betham’s Utilitarian Calculus, or J. S. Mill’s “harm principle.” Taking two variants of the latter, let’s see how the rule itself changes the outcome: (1) Do no harm. (2) Do no harm to others. Two extra words!

    Under the first prescriptive rule, suicide would be barred, but not under the second prescriptive rule. Likewise, the Commandment, “Do no murder,” is not synonymous with, “Do not kill.” Murder already defines a certain type of unjust killing, while “killing” includes all involuntary deaths. The Commandment specifies the former, not the latter. So, taking another’s life involuntarily and unjustly is proscribed, but taking one’s own life is not. (Let Judeo-Christian moralists use their casuistry to their best efforts to get out of this conclusion.)

    Likewise, natural rights are rule-based affirmations of someone else’s limitations (usually en masse). I won’t cavil over their divine or natural origins. The freedom of the press is one of the few rights expressed positively, but remains a prohibition (no infringement of the free trade in information). Ditto all the natural rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights. Each bars a behavior, based on a rule, which affirms a right. The “free exercise of religion” prohibits interference in particular religious practices and affirms the right to exercise one’s religious practices (not beliefs, the language affirms only actions, not beliefs upon which those actions may or may not be predicated).

    Where do natural rights and these moral claims hail? By convention. Simply. Or else, by Conentional Authority (such as the Levite Tribe’s Code of Holiness, which were a series of social conventions that sactioned some behaviors, gave rules for others, and then allowed the death for others). But the Levite Tribe was the priestly class of the Israelites, and so they scripted the religious conventions of its day. The Christian Dispensation cancelled the Levitical Code of Holiness by one former Jew, Saul, whose conversion as Paul made him influential in establishing new the conventions, and cancelled the “old law.” But did it not cancel also the Decalogue? One can argue both sides of that question without resolution. Sts. Augustine and Aquinas claimed it did not; only the Levitical Code. Casuistry is an art of religionists.

    If we recall Madison’s reluctance to create a Bill of Rights, we might glean how and why conventions allow for these practices. Madison rejected efforts to include a Bill of Rights for fear that enumerated rights would then imply that unenumerated rights retained by the people would not hold equal status. With Articles IX and X, which were stipulated by the Founders, he then consented to a draft a Bill of Rights (but only if the last two articles were expressly included). When’s the last time you or I heard anyone appeal to the “unenumerated rights retained by the people?” Never.

    What about the Right to Life? The Right to Self-Determination? The Right to Free Association? The Right to Reproductive Choice? These and other natural rights were supposed to be “retained” even if they were unenumerated (per Madison and the Framers). Have they been? Why was the Right to Due Process added Amendment, and not claimed under Article IX as another unemerated right? Ditto the Right to Equal Protection? Why was Roe v. Wade decided through a labyrinthine process under the Right to Due Process and Equal Protection, but not under the other “unenumerated” natural rights retained by the people (such as those suggested)? Because Madison’s caveats for retaining other conventional rule-based rights, not having been expressely enumerated, have been thoroughly abrogated.

    Madison, I suspect, would not be surprised that his horrors have been realized. Even with his two potent articles (which are thoroughly ignored), his intuition has been realized. Unless enumerated, individuals cannot see where they have these “unenumerated” rights, much less assert them. Social conventions trump commonsense and the Enlightenment fears that feared this outcome. Et tu, moral prescriptions? Where’s the conventional logic behind prohibiting the sale of liquor on Sundays, but not Monday-Saturday? Convention-makers decide these things, not free and open people.

    Madison thought the Enlightened Human would realize that conventions are what people grant to, and demand from, each other (whatever their purported natural or supernatural origins) in a natural and free association. So much for such free-thinking. Humans nearly always become lemmings, and if not given specific rules to assert and deny, they’ll go-off half-cocked. And we’re still arguing whether we can be akratic by Locke’s natural lights? Without enlightened thinking, we’ll never understand freedom, responsibility, ethics, morality, benevolence, contract, or anything less than more rules (which we’ve replaced with laws). “Give us rules so that we can tyrannize” the social conventions in our favor, to form a “moral order” that we approve, by claiming these rules to be of divine origin. (Now one understands the “utility” of deities by the priestly classes, I hope!) Our Founders would be surely disappointed. So was Jesus!

Trackback URI |